no need to apply for the initial non-o as long as his multiple entry non-o is still valid, which it sounded like it was from the post. He can simply get the 1 year extension off of that.
if your multiple entry non-o is still valid there is no need to apply for the initial non-o since you already have one. You would simply apply for the 1 year extension. As long as that 400k has been in the bank for 2 months prior to when you will apply for it. That is the exact situation I am in and will be applying for the 1 year extension around October.
no. I make references to two accounts. However neither are a roth IRA. The one I am saying gets the entire withdrawal taxed is a traditional IRA.
The one I say does not tax withdrawals is just a normal post tax funded brokerage account. Any gains from sales for the entire account are taxed and considered income, regardlesss of being withdrawn or not. The benefit is that there is no age limit on withdrawals that IRAs have.
A roth IRA is different in that it does not tax the gains like the brokerage account does. They also penalize any withdrawals prior to being 59
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a 10% penalty. However, you can avoid early withdrawal penalties by taking advantage of a rarely used tax code (72t) by withdrawing substantially equal periodic payments. Which I do on my traditional IRA.
Of course there are gains, unrealized gains because those investments have not been sold. I have also explained how this is managed so there can be unrealized gains for the total account and still not be liable for taxes on withdrawals.
For simplification purposes lets say this account starts with $100,000 of principle in it. I then buy $10,000 dollars worth of 10 different stocks, mutual funds, ETFs, etc with it. At some point during the year I sell one that has gained $1000 and is worth $11,000 at the time of sale. At another point in the year I sell one that lost $1000 and is only worth $9,000 at the time of sale. The net gain/loss for those two sales is zero therefore I owe no taxes on those sales according to US tax codes.
I now withdraw $10,000 of the $20,000 total in sales. The other $10,000 gets reinvested. At the end of the year all the investments still in the account are now back to being worth $100,000. But because I have not sold those investments there are no additional sales to be taxed beyond the two mentioned above, which resulted in a net gain/loss of zero. The net value of the account remains unchanged for the year despite withdrawing 10% of it.
Another way to look at it is simply kicking the capital gains taxes down the road to future tax years once those investments are sold. However as I've stated its a bit more complicated than that simplified version but should be more than sufficient to understand the concept.
I've also stated that thailand, like the US only taxes the gains on investments. What may possibly be different is it appears they do not allow you to offset gains of one investment with losses from another as the US does. I need to do more research to confirm this. Even if that is the case though it has zero impact on my original question.
In this scenario I am taking that $10,000 I withdrew from this account, of which it appears $1,000 of it would be taxable in Thailand, and combining it with another $10,000 from an account where the full $10,000 is taxable. I'm then taking $10,000 from this combined account and transfering it to Thailand. The other $10,000 I am using to pay bills in the US. I've now lost the ability to prove which source the money brought into thailand came from, and which source was used to pay bills in the US. This makes a difference because one would result in only the $1000 in gains being subjected to thailand taxes and the other the full $
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would be subjected to thailand taxes.
The simple solution, depending on how Thailand will treat this, is to stop combining these to sources of money and simply transfer directly from the account that has the lower tax liability.
it's not my fault you can't grasp it. Like I said, there's a bit more detail to it than that, some of which i have explained, but if you can't understand the over simplified version after it being explained several times then I'm certainly not going to waste my time getting into the finer details of it. I say "essentially" because investment and tax statements don't list out which parts of an investment or dispersals are principle and which parts are gains.
They simply list all sales for the year. Gains and losses are then summed up for the year and then you only owe taxes if the net result is a gain. I stated this in one of my previous comments, which of course you either didn't understand or were still too hung up on it needing to be called "savings" for it to have registered. Since you couldn't understand this extemely basic investing 101 concept I then explained saying that it is "essentially" the same as only withdrawing the original principle. Which it is "essentially" equivalent to in regards to tax liability.
The only thing that may be different with thailand is whether or not they allow capital losses to offset capital gains in a given tax year. That however has not been discussed here and does not impact your lack of understanding it.
All of this back and forth for something you clearly don't understand and actaully has absolutely nothing to do with my original question, which was bringing money into thailand from an account that mixed funds from two other accounts with drastically different tax liabilities. Because of this the paper trail to determine which money is spent in the US and which is brought into thailand is lost. This matters because how much I would owe in additional Thailand taxes will vary greatly depending on which source it is from.
How they have different tax liabilities does not change the question, answer, or solution to resolve it.
I tried saving all this back and forth by saying just think as one of the accounts as savings, since that was the only way you could understand it having no tax liability. I thought this would result in you focusing on the actual question, but again you are just too hung up on how there is no tax liability for the account in a given year. You are however the last person that should be trying to answer or give advice on anything investment or tax related.
the end result is that my withdrawals are essentially coming from the original principle, which I have stated several times. It's my account value that roughly remains the same despite me withdrawing 5-10% each year. The account value is the remaining principle plus the unrealized gains. Gains that have not been realized yet because those investments have not been sold. I explained this already. There's even more to it than that, but I am only explaining the simplified version because you're having trouble grasping even that.
and I have shown you and explained to you several times that Thailand views it the same as the US. They ONLY tax the gains and there are no gains to be taxed.
I haven't. I incorrectly called it savings, which you then got too hung up on despite me explaining several times that it has no bearing. From my very first post I said it is NOT considered income. You are the one that keeps trying to say it is income simply because it is not labeled "savings" or from a "savings" account. I have continued to tell you that it is NOT taxable income.